General Class Practice Test

Select the most correct answer for each question, then submit your practice test to check your score. This practice test randomly pulls one question from each topic in the General pool.

Good Luck!


G5A07:

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

The source delivers minimum power to the load
The electrical load is shorted
No current can flow through the circuit
The source can deliver maximum power to the load

G4C13:

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
It prevents signal overload
It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

G0B09:

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

The generator should be located in a well-ventilated area
The generator must be insulated from ground
Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
All these choices are correct

G3A14:

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

HF communications are improved
HF communications are disturbed
VHF/UHF ducting is improved
VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

G1B06:

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate Amateur Radio antenna structures?

Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1000 feet from the structure
Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

G5C04:

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

0.30 ohms
0.33 ohms
33.3 ohms
300 ohms

G1A03:

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

160 meters
30 meters
20 meters
12 meters

G3C04:

What does the term "critical angle" mean, as used in radio wave propagation?

The long path azimuth of a distant station
The short path azimuth of a distant station
The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

G4B08:

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

A field strength meter
An antenna noise bridge
A multimeter
A Q meter

G9A04:

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance
Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

G3B03:

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

Select a frequency just below the MUF
Select a frequency just above the LUF
Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
Select a frequency just above the critical frequency

G4D03:

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Distorted speech
Splatter
Excessive background pickup
All these choices are correct

G8B08:

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

To aid in tuning your transmitter
Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter's average power rating
To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
The attenuator will have to be adjusted accordingly

G6B09:

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

It utilizes ambient or back lighting
It offers a wide dynamic range
It consumes relatively high power
It has relatively short lifetime

G2E06:

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

85 Hz
170 Hz
425 Hz
850 Hz

G1D02:

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General class operator license?

General and Technician
General only
Technician only
Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

G8C05:

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
The receiver is busy decoding the packet
The entire file has been received correctly

G9C15:

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

G2B03:

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact and you notice interference from other stations on the frequency?

Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
Increase power to overcome interference

G1C02:

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

50 watts PEP output
200 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

G7A08:

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
Fewer circuit components are required
High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
All these choices are correct

G9D10:

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/3 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

In the plane of the loop
Broadside to the loop
Broadside and in the plane of the loop
Electrically small loops are omnidirectional

G9B04:

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

G8A08:

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Insufficient audio
Insufficient bandwidth
Frequency drift
Excessive bandwidth

G1E06:

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Region 4
Region 3
Region 2
Region 1

G7C01:

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

Carrier oscillator
Filter
IF amplifier
RF amplifier

G4E10:

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination

G2A07:

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter amateur bands

G4A03:

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

The radio is operating at half power
The transceiver is operating from an external power source
The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

G6A11:

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Its reactance increases
Harmonics are generated
It becomes capacitive
Catastrophic failure is likely

G2D01:

What is the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

G5B13:

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

530 watts
1060 watts
1500 watts
2120 watts

G2C10:

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Send more slowly
Stop sending
Zero beat my signal
I am troubled by static

G7B06:

What is a shift register?

A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
A digital mixer
An analog mixer

G0A08:

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
Contact the FCC for a visit to conduct a station evaluation